How Many Questions Of CTFL-Foundation Free Exam Questions

Pass4sure offers free demo for CTFL-Foundation exam. "Certified Tester Foundation Level", also known as CTFL-Foundation exam, is a ISTQB Certification. This set of posts, Passing the ISTQB CTFL-Foundation exam, will help you answer those questions. The CTFL-Foundation Questions & Answers covers all the knowledge points of the real exam. 100% real ISTQB CTFL-Foundation exams and revised by experts!

Online CTFL-Foundation free questions and answers of New Version:

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Total 338 questions Full Exam Access
Question 1
Which of the following statements contains a valuable objective for a test team?
My answer: -
Reference answer: D
Reference analysis:

None

Question 2
A tool that supports traceability, recording of incidents or scheduling of tests is called..?
My answer: -
Reference answer: D
Reference analysis:

None

Question 3
Model characteristics:
Which THREE of the below mentioned characteristics relate to TMMi? 1 credit
My answer: -
Reference answer: ADF
Reference analysis:

None

Question 4
Which of the following is the odd one out..?
My answer: -
Reference answer: D
Reference analysis:

None

Question 5
For which of the following would maintenance testing be used?
My answer: -
Reference answer: B
Reference analysis:

None

Question 6
Since the system is in the medical domain and therefore in the safety critical area, testing needs to be rigorous and evidence is required that the system has been adequately tested. Identify THREE measures that would typically be part of the test approach in this domain and which are not always applicable in other domains! 1 credit
My answer: -
Reference answer: ABC
Reference analysis:

None

Question 7
Which of the following is in the correct order (typically)?
My answer: -
Reference answer: A
Reference analysis:

None

Question 8
Statement Coverage will not check for the following:
My answer: -
Reference answer: A
Reference analysis:

None

Question 9
What is decision table testing?
My answer: -
Reference answer: D
Reference analysis:

None

Question 10
Which of the following is an example of testing as part of the requirements specification phase? 1 credit
My answer: -
Reference answer: A
Reference analysis:

None

Question 11
Which list of levels of tester independence is in the correct order, starting with the most independent first?
My answer: -
Reference answer: C
Reference analysis:

This option has someone nearer to the written code in each statement. All other options are not in this order.

Question 12
Which of the following is the main purpose of the component build and integration strategy?
My answer: -
Reference answer: E
Reference analysis:

None

Question 13
What is the purpose of a test completion criterion?
My answer: -
Reference answer: B
Reference analysis:

None

Question 14
Faults found by users are due to..?
My answer: -
Reference answer: B
Reference analysis:

None

Question 15
How can test execution tools be of most benefit during exploratory testing?
My answer: -
Reference answer: A
Reference analysis:

Exploratory testing is used when it is unclear what the system is supposed to do. Therefore test execution tools are of little use because expected results cannot be predicted.
However, the record feature of a test execution tool can be used to log the actions performed so that defects can be recreated (option (A)) and rectified more easily.

Question 16
As part of the improvement program, the organization is also looking at tool support. Which type of tool could be used to ensure higher quality of the code to be reviewed? 1 credit
My answer: -
Reference answer: C
Reference analysis:

None

Question 17
Which of the following is most likely to be performed by developers?
My answer: -
Reference answer: D
Reference analysis:

Static analysis is done almost exclusively by developers. The other review types would be performed using a combination of developers, testers and other interested stakeholders.

Question 18
Which of the following statements is most true about test conditions?
My answer: -
Reference answer: A
Reference analysis:

None

Question 19
Risks should be constantly reviewed. Given the current situation, which one of the following factors is most likely to lead to a revised view of product risk? 3 credits
My answer: -
Reference answer: B
Reference analysis:

None

Question 20
Which of the following statements are correct for walkthroughs?
(i) Often led by the author.
(ii) Documented and defined results.
(iii) All participants have defined roles.
(iv) Used to aid learning.
(v) Main purpose is to find defects.
My answer: -
Reference answer: C
Reference analysis:

None

Question 21
A top-down development strategy affects which level of testing most?
My answer: -
Reference answer: B
Reference analysis:

The development strategy will affect the component testing (option (A)), in so far as it cannot be tested unless it has been built. Options (C) and (D) require the system to have been delivered; at these points the development strategy followed is
not important to the tester. Option (B) needs knowledge of the development strategy in order to determine the order in which components will be integrated and tested.

Question 22
Regarding the process described above, what is the most important recommendation you would make using IEEE 1044 as a guide? 2 credits
My answer: -
Reference answer: A
Reference analysis:

None

Question 23
The business has asked for a weekly progress report. Which of the following would be appropriate as a measure of test coverage? 2 credits
My answer: -
Reference answer: A
Reference analysis:

None

Question 24
Which of the following accurately defines the integration testing test level? [K2]
My answer: -
Reference answer: A
Reference analysis:

None

Question 25
The development manager is managing the review of the responses received from bidders, and has asked the in-house test manager to provide a review checklist for the test management aspects of the responses. Which of the following checkpoints would be appropriate? 2 credits
My answer: -
Reference answer: D
Reference analysis:

None

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Total 338 questions Full Exam Access