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Total 76 questions Full Exam Access
Question 1
A test manager decided to skip static testing since he believes bugs can be found easily by doing dynamic testing. Was this decision right or wrong?
My answer: -
Reference answer: D
Reference analysis:

Static testing is a form of testing that does not involve executing the software or system under test. It includes activities such as reviews, inspections, walkthroughs, and analysis of documents, code, and models. Static testing can find defects early in the development process, before they become more expensive and difficult to fix in later stages. Static testing can also improve the quality of the software or system by preventing defects from being introduced in the first place. Static testing can complement dynamic testing, which involves executing the software or system under test and checking the results against expected outcomes. Dynamic testing can find defects that static testing may miss, such as performance, usability, or integration issues. However, dynamic testing alone is not sufficient to ensure quality, as it may not cover all possible scenarios, inputs, or paths. Therefore, a test manager who decides to skip static testing is making a wrong decision, as he or she is ignoring the benefits of static testing and relying solely on dynamic testing, which may not be effective or efficient enough to find and prevent
defects. References = ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus, Version 4.0, 2018, Section 2.1.1, page 14; ISTQB Glossary of Testing Terms, Version 4.0, 2018, page 36; ISTQB CTFL 4.0 - Sample Exam - Answers, Version 1.1, 2023, Question 3, page 9.

Question 2
A class grade application for instructors assigns letter grades based on students' numerical grades.
The letter grades for different numerical grades should be:
Above 89, up to 100 - A
Above 79, up to 89 • B
Above 69, up to 79 • C
Above 59, up to 69 - D
Below 60- F
Which of the following sets of test inputs would achieve the relatively highest equivalence partition coverage?
My answer: -
Reference answer: D
Reference analysis:

The set of test inputs that achieve the relatively highest equivalence partition coverage for grading students is option D: 69, 79, 80, 89, 90. This set effectively tests the boundaries between each grade category, ensuring that the grading system accurately transitions from one grade to another at the correct thresholds (ISTQB Main Web)
.References:
✑ ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0: ISTQB CTFL Syllabus v4.0 PDF

Question 3
What is 'Component Testing'?
My answer: -
Reference answer: D
Reference analysis:

Component testing is a test level. A test level is a group of test activities that are organized and managed together based on some common characteristics or objectives. A test level can be defined based on various factors, such as the scope and target of testing, the phase and model of development, the stakeholders and roles involved in testing, etc. Component testing (also known as unit testing or module testing) is a test level that focuses on verifying the functionality and quality of individual software components (such as modules, classes, functions, methods, etc.). Component testing can be performed by developers or testers using various techniques and tools depending on the type and complexity of the components. The other options are not test levels. Integration testing is another test level that focuses on verifying the functionality and quality of groups of software components that interact with each other or with external systems. Functional testing is a type of black-box dynamic testing that verifies that the system under test performs its intended functions according to its requirements or specifications.
Experience-based testing is a category of test design techniques that rely on the tester’s knowledge and intuition to derive and select test cases based on their experience with similar systems, technologies, domains, risks, etc. Verified References: A Study Guide to the ISTQB® Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer, page 19.

Question 4
Which of the following lists factors That contribute to PROJECT risks?
My answer: -
Reference answer: A
Reference analysis:

Project risks are the uncertainties or threats that may affect the project objectives, such as scope, schedule, cost, and quality. According to the ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 syllabus, some of the factors that contribute to project risks are:
✑ Skill and staff shortages: This factor refers to the lack of adequate or qualified human resources to perform the project tasks. This may result in delays, errors, rework, or low productivity.
✑ Problems in defining the right requirements: This factor refers to the difficulties or ambiguities in eliciting, analyzing, specifying, validating, or managing the requirements of the project. This may result in misalignment, inconsistencies, gaps, or changes in the requirements, affecting the project scope and quality.
✑ Contractual issues: This factor refers to the challenges or disputes that may arise from the contractual agreements between the project parties, such as clients, suppliers, vendors, or subcontractors. This may result in legal, financial, or ethical risks, affecting the project delivery and satisfaction.
The other options are not correct because they list factors that contribute to PRODUCT risks, not project risks. Product risks are the uncertainties or threats that may affect the quality or functionality of the software product or system. Some of the factors that contribute to product risks are:
✑ Poor software quality characteristics: This factor refers to the lack of adherence or
compliance to the quality attributes or criteria of the software product or system, such as reliability, usability, security, performance, or maintainability. This may result in defects, failures, or dissatisfaction of the users or stakeholders.
✑ Software does not perform its intended functions: This factor refers to the deviation
or discrepancy between the expected and actual behavior or output of the software product or system. This may result in errors, faults, or malfunctions of the software product or system.
References = ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 syllabus, Chapter 1: Fundamentals of Testing, Section 1.5: Risks and Testing, Pages 14-16.

Question 5
A system computes prices for bus tickets. The price depends on
- the passenger type (baby, child, adult, senior citizen, student, military)
- the travelling type (as single or in a group)
- the distance (zone 1. 2. 3)
- the kind of transport (ordinary, express)
Which of the following test techniques is the most appropriate one for testing the price computation?
My answer: -
Reference answer: C
Reference analysis:

Equivalence partitioning is a technique that divides the input data and output results of a software component into partitions of equivalent data. Each partition should contain data that is treated in the same way by the component. Equivalence partitioning can be used to reduce the number of test cases by selecting one representative value from each partition. Equivalence partitioning is suitable for testing the price computation, as it can identify different partitions based on the passenger type, the travelling type, the distance and the kind of transport. Equivalence partitioning is not statement coverage, which is a technique that measures how many executable statements in a source code are executed by a test suite. Statement coverage is not appropriate for testing the price computation, as it does not consider the input data or output results. Equivalence partitioning is not state transition testing, which is a technique that models how a system transitions from one state to another depending on events or conditions. State transition testing is not relevant for testing the price computation, as it does not involve any states or transitions. Equivalence partitioning is not use case testing, which is a technique that tests how users interact with a system to achieve a specific goal. Use case testing is not applicable for testing the price computation, as it does not focus on a single function or component. Verified References: [A Study Guide to the ISTQB® Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer], Chapter 4, page 37-38.

Question 6
You are testing a room upgrade system for a hotel. The system accepts three differed types of room (increasing order of luxury): Platinum. Silver and Gold Luxury. ONLY a Preferred Guest Card holder s eligible for an upgrade.
Below you can find the decision table defining the upgrade eligibility:
ISTQB-CTFL dumps exhibit
What is the expected result for each of the following test cases?
Customer A: Preference Guest Card holder, holding a Silver room Customer B: Non Preferred Guest Card holder, holding a Platinum room
My answer: -
Reference answer: C
Reference analysis:

According to the decision table in the image, a Preferred Guest Card holder with a Silver room is eligible for an upgrade to Gold Luxury (YES), while a non-Preferred Guest Card holder, regardless of room type, is not eligible for any upgrade (NO). Therefore, Customer A (a Preferred Guest Card holder with a Silver room) would be offered an upgrade to Gold Luxury, and Customer B (a non-Preferred Guest Card holder with a Platinum room) would not be offered any upgrade. References = The answer is derived directly from the decision table provided in the image; specific ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 documents are not referenced.

Question 7
Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
My answer: -
Reference answer: C
Reference analysis:

A test case is a set of input values, execution preconditions, expected results and execution postconditions, developed for a particular objective or test condition. A test case is a sequence of actions for test execution that can be followed by a tester or a test automation tool. A test case is specified during the test implementation activity, which is the activity that prepares the testware needed for test execution. A test case does not include actual results, as these are obtained during test execution and compared with the expected results. A test case does not describe items or events to test, as these are derived from the test basis during the test analysis activity. A test case is not derived during the test design activity, as this is the activity that specifies the test conditions or objectives that need to be tested. Verified References: [A Study Guide to the ISTQB® Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer], Chapter 3, page 23-24; Chapter 4, page 34.

Question 8
Why is it important to select a test technique?
My answer: -
Reference answer: C
Reference analysis:

Selecting the right test technique is crucial because different techniques are suited to different types of testing and can significantly increase the effectiveness of the testing process by creating tests that are more likely to find defects. While reducing the number of tests (A) and defining the number of regression cycles (D) are considerations in the testing process, they are not the primary reasons for selecting a test technique. The assertion that the only way to test a software application is by using well-proven test techniques (B) is too restrictive and does not acknowledge the adaptability required in testing to suit different contexts and objectives. Therefore, option C is the most comprehensive reason, as it focuses on the effectiveness and efficiency of testing, leading to the creation of high-quality tests that have a higher chance of finding bugs.

Question 9
Which of the following activities are part of test planning?
I) Setting the entry and exit criteria
II) Determining the validity of bug reports
III) Determining the number of resources required
IV) Determining the expected result for test cases
My answer: -
Reference answer: B
Reference analysis:

Test planning is a key activity in the testing process that involves defining the objectives, approach, resources, and schedule of intended test activities. Setting the entry and exit criteria (I) and determining the number of resources required (III) are integral parts of test planning. Determining the validity of bug reports (II) is more aligned with test analysis or test management activities post-execution, and determining the expected result for test cases (IV) is part of test design. Therefore, options I and III (B) are the activities that belong to test planning.

Question 10
Which of the following would be LEAST appropriate as part of an incident report covering the observation of a failure during testing?
My answer: -
Reference answer: B
Reference analysis:

An incident report during testing should focus on factual observations of failures or defects in the system, including their impacts and how they deviate from expected results. Options A, C, and D describe specific issues that are directly related to the system's behavior or performance and are suitable for inclusion in an incident report. Option B, which describes the user interface as "complicated and confusing" and relates to the tester's personal difficulty in following the test script, is more subjective and relates to the tester's experience rather than an objective observation of a system failure. Therefore, option B is the least appropriate for an incident report.

Question 11
Given the following requirement: Requirement ID: 2 8
Requirement Description Additional Entrance Fee Detailed Description
An additional fee of S3 is charged during the weekend, but
1) Visitors aged under 7 are not charged.
2) Visitors aged 7 to 13 inclusive get a 20% discount off the additional fee.
3) Visitors aged greater than 65 get a 50% discount off the additional fee. Age should be an integer of 0 or above.
Weekend means Friday to Sunday inclusive. Which of the following statements is NOT correct?
My answer: -
Reference answer: A
Reference analysis:

Boundary value analysis is a technique that tests boundary values between partitions of equivalent data. Boundary values are values at the edge of an equivalence partition or at the smallest incremental distance on either side of an edge. Boundary value analysis can be applied to both input and output values. Based on the given requirement, we can identify two input values: age and weekend. Age should be an integer of 0 or above, and weekend means Friday to Sunday inclusive. The following statement is not correct:
✑ A) Thursday is a valid input boundary value. This statement is not correct, as Thursday is not a boundary value for the input weekend. The boundary values for the input weekend are Friday and Sunday, as they are at the edge of the equivalence partition that represents weekend days. The following statements are correct:
✑ B) A minimum of 6 valid test cases are derived from boundary value analysis based on input age. This statement is correct, as we can derive six valid test cases based on input age by using the minimum and maximum values for each equivalence partition defined by the requirement. The equivalence partitions for input age are: under 7 (0 to 6), 7 to 13 inclusive (7 to 13), and greater than 65 (66 and above). The minimum and maximum values for each partition are: 0 and 6, 7 and 13, and 66 and any value above it.
✑ C) $3.01 is a valid output boundary value. This statement is correct, as $3.01 is a boundary value for the output additional fee. The additional fee can have four possible values depending on the input age: $0 (for visitors aged under 7), $2.40 (for visitors aged 7 to 13 inclusive with a 20% discount), $1.50 (for visitors aged greater than 65 with a 50% discount), and $3 (for visitors aged between 14 and 65). The boundary values for the output additional fee are $0 and $3, as they are at the edge of an equivalence partition or at the smallest incremental distance on either side of an edge. Therefore, $3.01 is a valid output boundary value, as it is at the smallest incremental distance above $3.
✑ D) 7 and 13 are boundary values for the equivalence partition including age 10.
This statement is correct, as 7 and 13 are boundary values for the equivalence partition that represents visitors aged 7 to 13 inclusive. This partition includes age 10, which is an internal value within the partition. Verified References: [A Study
Guide to the ISTQB® Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer], Chapter 4, page 37-38.

Question 12
Which of the following is NOT an experience-based technique?
My answer: -
Reference answer: A
Reference analysis:

Boundary value analysis is not an experience-based technique, but rather a specification-based technique (also known as black-box technique). Experience-based techniques are techniques that rely on the tester’s knowledge and intuition to derive and select test cases based on their experience with similar systems, technologies, domains, risks, etc. Some examples of experience-based techniques are error guessing, exploratory testing, fault attack, checklist-based testing, etc. Specification-based techniques are techniques that rely on the tester’s analysis and interpretation of the requirements or specifications of the system under test to derive and select test cases based on some criteria or rules. Some examples of specification-based techniques are equivalence partitioning, boundary value analysis, decision table testing, state transition testing, etc. Verified References: A Study Guide to the ISTQB® Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer, page 31.

Question 13
The following sentences refer to the 'Standard for Software Test Documentation' specification (IEEE 829).
Which sentence is correct?
My answer: -
Reference answer: B
Reference analysis:

The IEEE 829 standard is a widely used specification for test documentation, but it is not mandatory or universal. Most test documentation regimes follow this spec to some degree, with changes done to fit a specific situation or organization. The standard does not require any approval from management, marketing or development for any deviation, nor does it depend on the type of project (military or consumer market). The standard also does not guarantee high quality test documentation regimes, as it only provides a general outline and format, not the actual content or quality criteria. Verified References: A Study Guide to the ISTQB® Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer, page 16.

Question 14
A software application incorrectly provided customers discounts of 50% off their total purchases if the purchases exceeded S100. It was discovered through an audit that the discount should have been only 5% off these purchases. A root cause analysis uncovered that the requirements Incorrectly stated 50% instead of 5% in this scenario.
Which of the following MOST accurately reflects this scenario?
My answer: -
Reference answer: B
Reference analysis:

According to the ISTQB CTFL syllabus, a defect is a deviation from the expected result which in this scenario is the incorrect discount applied to the customers. The root cause, as per the ISTQB definition, is the originating cause of a defect, which in this case is the incorrect requirement stating 50% instead of 5%. Therefore, the incorrect requirement is the root cause and the customer receiving the wrong discount is the effect of this root cause.References:ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Section 1.4.3 "Defects, Root Causes, and Effects".

Question 15
A bank offers a savings account with various interest rates based on the current balance in the account. The balance ranges and respective interest rates are:
Up to $100.00 =2%
$100.01 to $500.00 = 4%
$500.01 to $1,000.00 = 5
My answer: -
Reference answer: B
Reference analysis:

Boundary Value Analysis (BVA) is a software testing technique in which tests are designed to include values at the boundaries. The concept is to focus on the boundaries since errors tend to occur at the edges of input ranges rather than in the middle.
Given the problem statement:
✑ Up to $100.00 = 2%
✑ $100.01 to $500.00 = 4%
✑ $500.01 to $1,000.00 = 5%
✑ Above $1,000.00 = 7%
Two-point boundary value analysis means testing the two boundaries of each range. For each range:
✑ The boundaries for "Up to $100.00" would be $100.00 and $100.01.
✑ The boundaries for "$100.01 to $500.00" would be $100.00 and $500.00.
✑ The boundaries for "$500.01 to $1,000.00" would be $500.00 and $1,000.00.
✑ The boundaries for "Above $1,000.00" would be $1,000.00 and $1,000.01. Now, let's examine the options:
✑ A. $5.00, $100.00, $499.99, $1,000.00, $1,000.01
✑ B. $100.00, $100.01, $100.02, $500.00, $999.99
✑ C. $100.00, $500.00, $1,000.00, $1,000.01
✑ D. $5.00, $100.00, $500.00, $1,000.01
Given the options, B provides the highest boundary coverage (ISTQB not-for-profit association) (Udemy).
References:
✑ Certified Tester Foundation Level v4.0
✑ 10 Sample Exams ISTQB Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0

Question 16
Which of the following is a function of a dynamic analysis tool?
My answer: -
Reference answer: B
Reference analysis:

A dynamic analysis tool is a tool that performs analysis of a software product based on its behavior during execution. A dynamic analysis tool can monitor various aspects of a program’s run-time performance, such as memory usage, CPU load, response time, or resource leaks. A dynamic analysis tool can monitor the allocation, use and de- allocation of memory during run-time of a program, which can help detect defects such as memory leaks, buffer overflows, or memory corruption. A dynamic analysis tool cannot provide support for traceability of tests, test results and incidents to source documents, as this is a function of a test management tool. A dynamic analysis tool cannot execute programs step-by-step in order to reproduce failures and find corresponding defects, as this is a function of a debugging tool. A dynamic analysis tool cannot provide support for release of baselines consisting of configuration items, as this is a function of a configuration management tool. Verified References: [A Study Guide to the ISTQB® Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer], Chapter 6, page 56-57.

Question 17
Which of the following statements is an example of testing contributing to higher quality?
My answer: -
Reference answer: D
Reference analysis:

✑ The question is about identifying an example of testing contributing to higher quality. Quality is the degree to which a component, system or process meets specified requirements and/or user/customer needs and expectations1. Testing is the process consisting of all lifecycle activities, both static and dynamic, concerned with planning, preparation and evaluation of software products and related work products to determine that they satisfy specified requirements, to demonstrate that they are fit for purpose and to detect defects2.
✑ Therefore, testing contributes to higher quality by verifying and validating that the software products and related work products meet the specified requirements, are fit for purpose and have no defects, or at least have a reduced number of defects. Testing also provides information about the quality of the software products and related work products to the stakeholders, who can make informed decisions based on the test results3.
✑ Out of the four given statements, only option D is an example of testing contributing to higher quality, as it shows that testing has detected a defect (a flaw in a component or system that can cause the component or system to fail to perform its required function4) and that the defect has been resolved (fixed and confirmed) prior to release (delivery of the software product to the customer or end user). This means that testing has prevented a potential failure (an event in which a component or system does not perform a required function within specified limits) from occurring in the operational environment, and thus has improved the quality of the software product.
✑ Option A is not an example of testing contributing to higher quality, as it is a reporting activity that summarizes the test results and evaluates the test objectives, but does not directly affect the quality of the software product or related work products. A test summary report is a document that records and communicates the outcomes of testing activities, including test completion criteria, test results, incident reports, test summary and evaluation, and lessons learned.
✑ Option B is not an example of testing contributing to higher quality, as it is a planning activity that estimates the resources and time needed for testing activities, but does not directly affect the quality of the software product or related work products. A test effort estimate is an approximation of the amount of work and/or the duration of time required to perform testing activities.
✑ Option C is not an example of testing contributing to higher quality, as it is a preparation activity that sets up the test environment (an environment containing hardware, instrumentation, simulators, software tools, and other support elements needed to conduct a test), but does not directly affect the quality of the software product or related work products. A test environment installation is a process of installing and configuring the test environment according to the test environment specification. References:
✑ 1: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 10
✑ 2: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 11
✑ 3: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 12
✑ 4: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 13
✑ : ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 13
✑ : ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 77
✑ : ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 78
✑ : ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 79
✑ : ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 80
✑ : ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 81
✑ : ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 82
✑ : ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 83
✑ : ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 84
✑ : ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 85
✑ : ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 86
✑ : ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 87
✑ : ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 88
✑ : ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 89
✑ : ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 90
✑ : ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 91
✑ : ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 92
✑ : ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 93
✑ : ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 94
✑ : ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 95
✑ : ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 96
✑ : ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 97
✑ : ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 98
✑ : ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 99
✑ : ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 100
✑ : ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 101
✑ : ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 102
✑ : ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 103
✑ : ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 104
✑ : ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 105
✑ : ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 106
✑ : ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 107

Question 18
Consider the following code
int premium=2500; if (age<30>{
premium = premium +1500:
}
Which options suits for a correct combination of Boundary value and expected result. Assume first number as boundary followed by expected result.
My answer: -
Reference answer: B
Reference analysis:

In the given code snippet, the premium is increased by 1500 if the age is less than 30. Therefore, at the boundary value of age 29, the premium should be 2500 + 1500 = 4000, and at age 30, the premium should remain at its initial value of 2500, as the condition is no longer met. Option B correctly reflects this with 29, 4000 and 30, 2500 as the boundary value and the expected results, respectively.

Question 19
The ISTOB glossary defines Quality Assurance as: "Pail or quality management focused on providing confidence that quality requirements will be fulfilled. Which of the following Is not one of the Quality Assurance activity?
My answer: -
Reference answer: C
Reference analysis:

Quality Assurance (QA) activities are focused on providing confidence that quality requirements will be fulfilled through planned and systematic processes. These activities are preventive in nature, aimed at ensuring quality is built into the product from the beginning.
✑ Requirements elicitation (A) is part of the requirements engineering process and is concerned with gathering the needs and conditions to meet for a new or altered product.
✑ Defect analysis (B) can be part of QA activities as it involves analyzing defects to prevent them in future development cycles.
✑ Functional Testing (C) and Performance Testing (D) are types of dynamic testing, which are actually Quality Control activities rather than Quality Assurance. They are concerned with the identification of defects in the product, not with the processes to prevent defects.
Since the question asks for an activity that is NOT part of Quality Assurance, options A and B are incorrect because they can be part of QA activities. Between C and D, while both are dynamic testing activities, Functional Testing (C) is more directly related to verifying the functionality against specified requirements, which is more aligned with Quality Control. Therefore, C is the best answer.

Question 20
ST is a Software Testing organization which utilizes a testing knowledge base. Access to ST knowledge base can be either full or limited. Access level is determined based on ST certification and testing experience as follows:
* 1. If ST certified, with less than 5 years testing experience - allow limited access
* 2. If ST certified, 5-10 years of testing experience - allow full access
* 3. If not ST certified with 5-10 years of testing experience - allow limited access.
What would be the results for:
A - ST certified. 12 years of testing experience
B - Not ST certified. 7 years of testing experience
C - Not ST certified. 3 years of testing experience
My answer: -
Reference answer: B
Reference analysis:

The correct answer can be derived by applying the given rules to each case:
✑ A is ST certified and has 12 years of testing experience, which is more than 10 years. Therefore, A does not match any of the rules and the result is unknown.
✑ B is not ST certified and has 7 years of testing experience, which is between 5 and 10 years. Therefore, B matches rule 3 and the result is limited access.
✑ C is not ST certified and has 3 years of testing experience, which is less than 5 years. Therefore, C does not match any of the rules and the result is unknown. Verified References: This question does not require any external references, as it is based on logical reasoning.

Question 21
A system has valid input numbers ranging between 1000 and 99999 (both inclusive). Which of the following inputs are a result of designing tests for all valid equivalence classes and their boundaries?
My answer: -
Reference answer: B
Reference analysis:

A correct list of boundary values for the P input should include the minimum and maximum values of the valid range (15 and 350), as well as the values just below and above the boundaries (14 and 351). Boundary value analysis is a test design technique that involves testing the values at or near the boundaries of an input domain or output range, as these values are more likely to cause errors than values in the middle. Option B satisfies this condition, as it has all four boundary values (14, 15, 350, 351). Option A has two values from the same equivalence class (1000 and 99999), option C has two values outside the range (999 and 100000), and option D has no boundary values at all. Verified References: A Study Guide to the ISTQB® Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer, page 34.

Question 22
A system has a self-diagnostics module that starts executing after the system is reset. The diagnostics are running 12 different tests on the systems memory hardware. The following is one of the requirements set for the diagnostics module:
'The time taking the diagnostics tests to execute shall be less than 2 seconds' Which of the following is a failure related to the specified requirement?
My answer: -
Reference answer: B
Reference analysis:

A failure is an event in which a component or system does not perform a required function within specified limits1. A requirement is a condition or capability needed by a user to solve a problem or achieve an objective2. In this case, the requirement is that the diagnostics tests should execute in less than 2 seconds. Therefore, any event that violates this requirement is a failure. The only option that clearly violates this requirement is B. The diagnostic tests take too much time to execute. If the diagnostic tests take more than 2 seconds to complete, then they do not meet the specified limit and thus fail. The other options are not necessarily failures related to the specified requirement. Option A. The diagnostic tests fail to start after a system reset is a failure, but not related to the time limit. It is related to the functionality of the self-diagnostics module. Option C. The diagnostic tests that measure the speed of the memory, fail is also a failure, but not related to the time limit. It is related to the accuracy of the memory tests. Option D. The diagnostic tests fail due to incorrect implementation of the test code is also a failure, but not related to
the time limit. It is related to the quality of the test code. References = ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Requirements Engineering Fundamentals.

Question 23
Which sequence of stated in the answer choices is correct in accordance with the following figure depicting the life-cycle of a defect?
ISTQB-CTFL dumps exhibit
My answer: -
Reference answer: D
Reference analysis:

According to the ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0, the life cycle of a defect typically follows a sequence from its discovery to its closure. In the provided figure, it starts with S0 (New), moves to S1 (Assigned), then to S2 (Resolved), followed by S3 (Verified). If the defect is not fixed, it can be Re-opened (S5) and goes back for verification (S3). Once verified, it is Closed (S4). References: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 Syllabus, Section 1.4.3, Page 17.

Question 24
Which of the following statements about testing in the context of an agile (iterative- incremental) development model is correct?
My answer: -
Reference answer: C
Reference analysis:

In the context of agile (iterative-incremental) development models, testing is integrated into the development process and occurs continuously throughout the lifecycle of the project. Agile testing emphasizes adaptability and the need for feedback at various stages of development.
Option C is correct because regression testing is indeed necessary whenever a new increment is added to the existing system. Agile development often involves frequent changes and additions to the codebase, which can potentially introduce new defects into previously tested code. Regression testing ensures that new changes have not adversely affected existing functionality.
Options A, B, and D present misconceptions about agile testing:
✑ A is incorrect because, in agile, all types of testing (unit, integration, system, acceptance) are important and occur throughout the iteration, not just unit and acceptance tests.
✑ B is incorrect because agile methodologies advocate for continuous integration and testing, where development and testing activities overlap and support each other throughout an iteration.
✑ D is incorrect because agile methodologies encourage a wide range of testing types, including both functional and non-functional, as well as exploratory testing, to ensure a comprehensive quality assessment.

Question 25
Which ONE of the following statements does NOT describe how testing contributes to higher quality?
My answer: -
Reference answer: B
Reference analysis:

✑ The testing of software does not demonstrate the absence of defects, but rather the presence of defects or the conformance of the software to the specified requirements1. Testing can never prove that the software is defect-free, as it is impossible to test all possible scenarios, inputs, outputs, and behaviors of the software2. Testing can only provide a level of confidence in the quality of the software, based on the coverage, effectiveness, and efficiency of the testing activities3.
✑ The other options are correct because: References =
✑ 1 ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 10
✑ 2 ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 11
✑ 3 ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 12
✑ 4 ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 13
✑ 5 ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 97
✑ 6 ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 98
✑ 7 ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 14
✑ [8] ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 15
✑ [9] ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 16
✑ [10] ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 17
✑ [11] ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 18
✑ [12] ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 19

Question 26
Out of the following. what is not needed to specify in defect report?
My answer: -
Reference answer: C
Reference analysis:

A defect report is a document that records the details of a defect found during testing. A defect report typically contains the following items:
✑ Identifier: A unique identifier for the defect report
✑ Summary: A concise summary of the defect
✑ Description: A detailed description of the defect, including the steps to reproduce it, the expected and actual results, and any relevant screenshots or logs
✑ Severity: The degree of impact that the defect has on the system
✑ Priority: The level of urgency for resolving the defect
✑ Status: The current state of the defect, such as new, open, resolved, closed, etc.
✑ Resolution: The action taken to resolve the defect, such as fix, workaround, reject, etc. Out of these items, the one that is not needed to specify in a defect report is how to fix the defect. How to fix the defect is a technical solution that is usually determined by the developer who is assigned to resolve the defect. How to fix the defect is not part of the defect report, but rather part of the code change or patch that is delivered to fix the defect. The other items are needed to specify in a defect report, as they provide essential information for identifying, tracking and resolving defects. Verified References: [A Study Guide to the ISTQB® Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer], Chapter 3, page 32-33.

Question 27
A software calculates the annual car tax using three inputs:
- E; the emission level of the vehicle
- P: the power of the vehicle
-T the type of the vehicle
The input value for P can be integer positive values between 15 and 350.
Which of the following answers contains a correct list of a boundary values for the P input?
My answer: -
Reference answer: B
Reference analysis:

A correct list of boundary values for the P input should include the minimum and maximum values of the valid range (15 and 350), as well as the values just below and above the boundaries (14 and 351). Boundary value analysis is a test design technique that involves testing the values at or near the boundaries of an input domain or output range, as these values are more likely to cause errors than values in the middle. Option B satisfies this condition, as it has all four boundary values (14, 15, 350, 351). Option A has only two boundary values (14 and 351), option C has only two boundary values (15 and 350), and option D has no boundary values at all. Verified References: A Study Guide to the ISTQB® Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer, page 34.

Question 28
Software was found lo take much more time than the stated requirement of less than one
second to save a file. Upon investigation it was found that there was an unnecessary check inside a loop which was slowing down the file-save operation. The software not being able to meet the desired response time is an example of
My answer: -
Reference answer: D
Reference analysis:

A failure is an event in which a component or system does not perform a required function within specified limits. A failure is observable by the software users or other stakeholders. A failure is caused by one or more defects in the software. In this case, the software not being able to meet the desired response time is an example of a failure, as it deviates from the stated requirement and affects the user experience. It is not a defect, which is a flaw in the software that causes the failure. It is not an error, which is a human action that produces an incorrect result. It is not a non-defect, as it clearly violates a specified requirement. Verified References: [A Study Guide to the ISTQB® Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer], Chapter 1, page 4.

Question 29
Given the following review process main activities and specific review activities:
* a. Planning
* b. Initiate review
* c. Issue communication and analysis d.Fixing and reporting
* 1. Creating defect reports
* 2. Estimating effort and timeframe
* 3. Recording updated status of defects
* 4. Selecting the people to participate
* 5. Distributing the work product and other material
* 6. Evaluating the review findings
Which of the following BEST matches the review process main activities with the appropriate specific review activities?
My answer: -
Reference answer: A
Reference analysis:

Matching the main review process activities with the specific review activities, we see that planning includes estimating effort and timeframe (2) and selecting people to participate (4). Initiating a review involves distributing work products and other material (5). Issue communication and analysis includes evaluating the review findings (6). Fixing and reporting would entail creating defect reports (1) and recording the updated status of defects (3).References:ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Section 3.2 "Review Process".

Question 30
Which of the following statements regarding inspection is NOT true?
My answer: -
Reference answer: B
Reference analysis:

An inspection is a type of review that follows a defined process with formal entry and exit criteria and roles and responsibilities for participants. An inspection can be performed by peers with different roles, such as moderator, author, reviewer and scribe. The following statement about inspection is not true:
✑ B) The main purpose of an inspection is to find solutions to the problems. This statement is not true, as the main purpose of an inspection is to find defects or issues in a work product, not to find solutions to the problems. Finding solutions to the problems is a debugging or problem-solving activity that is usually performed by the author or developer after receiving the inspection report. The following statements about inspection are true:
✑ A) An inspection may be led by a trained moderator who shall not be the author.
This statement is true, as an inspection requires a moderator role who leads the inspection process and ensures that it follows the rules and standards. The moderator should be trained in inspection techniques and should not be the author of the work product under inspection, in order to avoid bias or conflict of interest.
✑ C) An inspection can be performed by peers. This statement is true, as an inspection involves peer review, which means that the work product under inspection is evaluated by people who have similar roles or expertise as the author, but who are not directly involved in creating or modifying the work product.
✑ D) An inspection shall follow a formal process based on rules and checklists with entry and exit criteria. This statement is true, as an inspection follows a formal process that consists of six main steps: planning, kick-off meeting, individual preparation, review meeting, rework and follow-up. Each step has defined rules and checklists to guide the participants and ensure consistency and quality. Each step also has entry and exit criteria to ensure that the prerequisites and objectives are met before moving to the next step. Verified References: A Study Guide to the ISTQB® Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer, Chapter 3, page 28-29.

Question 31
What is test oracle?
My answer: -
Reference answer: C
Reference analysis:

A test oracle is a mechanism or principle that can be used to determine whether the observed behavior or output of a system under test is correct or not1. A test oracle can be based on various sources of expected results, such as specifications, user expectations, previous versions, comparable systems, etc2. References: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 Syllabus, Section 1.2.1, Page 91; ISTQB Glossary of Testing Terms, Version 4.0, Page 332.

Question 32
Which of the following is a key characteristic of informal reviews?
My answer: -
Reference answer: B
Reference analysis:

A key characteristic of informal reviews is low cost. Informal reviews are a type of review that does not follow a formal process or have any formal documentation. Informal reviews are usually performed by individuals or small groups of peers or colleagues who have some knowledge or interest in the product under review. Informal reviews can be done at any time and for any purpose, such as checking for errors, clarifying doubts, sharing ideas, etc. Informal reviews have low cost, as they do not require much time, effort, or resources to conduct. The other options are not key characteristics of informal reviews. Kick-off meeting is a characteristic of formal reviews, such as inspections or walkthroughs. Kick-off meeting is a meeting that is held before the review process starts, where the roles and responsibilities of the participants are defined, the objectives and scope of the review are agreed, and the logistics and schedule of the review are planned. Individual preparation is a characteristic of formal reviews, such as inspections or walkthroughs. Individual preparation is an activity that is performed by the reviewers before the review meeting, where they examine the product under review and identify any issues or questions that need to be discussed or resolved during the review meeting. Metrics analysis is a characteristic of formal reviews, such as inspections or walkthroughs. Metrics analysis is an activity that is performed after the review process is completed, where the data and results of the review are collected and analyzed to measure the effectiveness and efficiency of the review, as well as to identify any improvement actions or lessons learned for future reviews. Verified References: A Study Guide to the ISTQB® Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer, page 9.

Question 33
Which of the following statements about estimation of the test effort is WRONG?
My answer: -
Reference answer: C
Reference analysis:

✑ Effort estimate does not depend on the budget of the project, but rather on the scope, complexity, and quality of the software product and the testing activities1. Budget is a constraint that may affect the feasibility and accuracy of the effort estimate, but it is not a factor that determines the effort estimate. Effort estimate is the amount of work required to complete the testing activities, measured in terms
of person-hours, person-days, or person-months2.
✑ The other options are correct because: References =
✑ 1 ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 154
✑ 2 ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 155
✑ 3 ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 156
✑ 4 ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 157
✑ 5 ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 158
✑ 6 ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 159
✑ 7 ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 16
✑ [8] ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 160
✑ [9] ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 161

Question 34
Given the following review types and review characteristics:
* a. Pair review
* b. Walkthrough
* c. Technical review
* d. Inspection
* 1. Formal
* 2. Informal
* 3. Purposes include evaluating the quality of the work product under review and generating new ideas (e.g., brainstorming solutions)
* 4. Purposes include Improving the software product and training the review participants Which of the following BEST matches the review type with the review characteristic?
My answer: -
Reference answer: C
Reference analysis:

Pair reviews are informal and typically involve two people reviewing the work product together, often in an informal setting. Walkthroughs are more formal and aim to educate stakeholders and evaluate the product, serving the dual purpose of improving the product and training participants. Technical reviews have a strong focus on improving the product's quality, often involving technical stakeholders. Inspections are the most formal review type and are aimed primarily at detecting defects.References:ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Section 3.2.3 "Review Types".

Question 35
Which of the following statements is LEAST likely to be describing component testing?
My answer: -
Reference answer: C
Reference analysis:

Component testing (also known as unit testing or module testing) is a level of testing that focuses on verifying the functionality and quality of individual software components (such as modules, classes, functions, methods, etc.). Component testing mainly tests interfaces and interaction between components, as well as internal logic and data structures of the components. Component testing may be applied using a test-first approach (such as test-driven development or behavior-driven development), where tests are written before the code is implemented. Component testing does not identify defects in modules and classes, as this is a result of component testing, not an objective. Simulators and stubs may be required for component testing, as they can simulate or replace missing or incomplete components or external systems that are needed for testing. Verified References: A Study Guide to the ISTQB® Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer, page 19.

Question 36
In maintenance testing, what is the relationship between impact analysis and regression testing?
My answer: -
Reference answer: D
Reference analysis:

In maintenance testing, the relationship between impact analysis and regression testing is that the impact analysis is used to evaluate the amount of regression testing to be performed. Maintenance testing is a type of testing that is performed on an existing software product after it has been delivered or deployed, in order to ensure that it still meets its requirements and functions correctly after a change or a modification. Maintenance testing can be triggered by various reasons, such as corrective maintenance (fixing defects), adaptive maintenance (adapting to new environments), perfective maintenance (improving performance), preventive maintenance (avoiding future problems), etc. Impact analysis is a technique that is used to assess the extent and nature of changes introduced by maintenance activities on the software product or project. Impact analysis helps to identify which parts of the software product are affected by the changes, which parts need to be modified or updated accordingly, which parts need to be retested or verified for correctness or compatibility, etc. Regression testing is a type of testing that verifies that previously tested software still performs correctly after a change or a modification. Regression testing helps to detect any side effects or unintended consequences of maintenance activities on the software product’s functionality or quality. Regression testing can be performed at various levels and scopes depending on the impact analysis results. Therefore, in maintenance testing, impact analysis is used to evaluate the amount of regression testing to be performed. Verified References: A Study Guide to the ISTQB® Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer, page 20.

Question 37
The following 4 equivalence classes are given:
ISTQB-CTFL dumps exhibit
Which of the following alternatives includes correct test values for x. based on equivalence partitioning?
My answer: -
Reference answer: D
Reference analysis:

✑ The question is about selecting the correct test values for x based on equivalence partitioning. Equivalence partitioning is a software test design technique that divides the input data of a software unit into partitions of equivalent data from which test cases can be derived. In this case, the given equivalence classes are:
Option D provides a value from each of these partitions:
✑ For (x \leq -100), it gives -1000.
✑ For (-100 < x>✑ For (100 \leq x < 1000>✑ For (x \geq 1000), it gives 1500.
So, option D covers all four given equivalence classes with appropriate values. References: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 documents available at ISTQB and ASTQB.
✑ 1: ISTQB Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 38
✑ 2: ISTQB Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 39
✑ : ISTQB Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 40

Question 38
Which or the following would be a key difference between a peer review of code and static analysis of code using a tool?
My answer: -
Reference answer: B
Reference analysis:

The key difference between a peer review of code and static analysis of code using a tool lies in their approaches and scope. A peer review is a manual inspection of the code by peers or colleagues, focusing not only on the technical aspects of the code but also on other elements such as design, compliance with standards, and maintainability. Peer reviews can identify defects, suggest improvements, and ensure that the code adheres to best practices and team standards.
On the other hand, static analysis is an automated process performed by tools designed to analyze the code without executing it. These tools can detect potential issues such as syntax errors, vulnerabilities, and code smells based on predefined rules and patterns. While static analysis is technically focused, it lacks the broader perspective that human reviewers can provide, such as evaluating the code's maintainability or adherence to project-specific standards. Therefore, static analysis targets the code technically, whereas peer review encompasses a wider range of aspects, making option B the correct answer.

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