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Total 120 questions Full Exam Access
Question 1
- (Exam Topic 20)
Given is the following defect removal chart reported at the end of system testing - showing total defects detected and closed defects (fixed and successfully retested). A number of open defects are classified as critical. All tests have been executed.
ISEB-SWT2 dumps exhibit
Based on the chart above, what is the most appropriate next test phase? 1 credit
My answer: -
Reference answer: D
Reference analysis:

None

Question 2
- (Exam Topic 21)
Which of the following statements are true?
(i) Defects are likely to be found earlier in the development process by using reviews rather than static analysis.
(ii) Walkthroughs require code but static analysis does not require code.
(iii) Informal reviews can be performed on code and specifications.
(iv) Dynamic techniques are generally used before static techniques.
(v) Dynamic techniques can only be used after code is ready to be executed.
My answer: -
Reference answer: D
Reference analysis:

The other answers are incorrect because:
(ii) Walkthroughs do not require code and static analysis does require code.
(iv) Static techniques do not execute the code and therefore can be run before and after the code is ready for execution.

Question 3
- (Exam Topic 21)
Given the Following program IF X <>= ZTHEN Statement 2;ENDMcCabe’s Cyclomatic Complexity is :
My answer: -
Reference answer: B
Reference analysis:

None

Question 4
- (Exam Topic 21)
Fault Masking is:
My answer: -
Reference answer: A
Reference analysis:

None

Question 5
- (Exam Topic 21)
Which of the following principles should be followed when introducing a test tool into an organization?
(i) Assessing organizational maturity to establish whether a tool will provide expected benefits.
(ii) Requiring a quick payback on the initial investment.
(iii) Including a requirement for the tool to be easy to use without having to train unskilled testers.
(iv) Identifying and agreeing requirements before evaluating test tools.
My answer: -
Reference answer: B
Reference analysis:

Assessing organizational maturity (i) is very important when deciding whether to introduce a test tool, as implementing a tool in an immature test organization with poor processes is unlikely to produce any benefits.
A quick return on the initial investment (ii) in a test tool is rare.
Having a requirement that a tool should be easy to use for untrained and unskilled testers (iii) is generally a false hope. This is comparable with expecting someone who has never driven a car to be able to drive safely and effectively.
Agreeing requirements before evaluating tools (iv) is essential. Not to do so would be comparable with building and testing a system without requirements.
In conclusion, (i) and (iv) are good principles to follow when introducing a tool and (ii) and (iii) are not.

Question 6
- (Exam Topic 23)
Which one of the following statements about testing techniques is TRUE?
My answer: -
Reference answer: A
Reference analysis:

None

Question 7
- (Exam Topic 22)
The Cambrian Pullman Express has special ticketing requirements represented by the partial decision table below.
Refer to the exhibit
ISEB-SWT2 dumps exhibit
Carol has a student railcard and is travelling on a Flexible Standard Class ticket. James has a senior railcard and is travelling on a super saver ticket. Which of the options represents the correct actions for these two test cases? [K3]
My answer: -
Reference answer: A
Reference analysis:

None

Question 8
- (Exam Topic 23)
Which of the following would you NOT expect to see on an incident report from test execution?
My answer: -
Reference answer: D
Reference analysis:

None

Question 9
- (Exam Topic 23)
A new testing tool has been selected for an organisation and a pilot project has successfully completed. The next step is to deploy the tool within the organization.
What is a key success factor in tool deployment?
My answer: -
Reference answer: A
Reference analysis:

None

Question 10
- (Exam Topic 21)
Which of the following best describes the purpose of non-functional testing?
My answer: -
Reference answer: A
Reference analysis:

None

Question 11
- (Exam Topic 21)
Boundary value testing:
My answer: -
Reference answer: B
Reference analysis:

None

Question 12
- (Exam Topic 21)
What test roles (or parts in the testing process) is a developer most likely to perform?
(i) Executing component integration tests.
(ii) Static analysis.
(iii) Setting up the test environment.
(iv) Deciding how much testing should be automated.
My answer: -
Reference answer: A
Reference analysis:

(i) Executing component integration tests is usually done by developers. Developers are usually responsible for unit and component integration testing. Independent testing usually follows at system and acceptance test levels.
(ii) Static analysis is usually done by developers because: it requires an understanding of the code and therefore the person doing this needs skills in the programming language; and it can be done as soon as the code is written. Therefore it is quick and effective for the developer to do it. The risk of a lack of test independence can be mitigated by performing independent system and acceptance testing.
(iii) Setting up the test environment is an activity typically performed by a tester. It may require support from developers and staff from other departments and on some occasions environments could be set up by
developers. However, it is a task that could be done by a tester rather than a developer.
(iv) Deciding how much testing should be automated is typically a decision made by the test leader, who will consult other staff in the decision-making process. Developers may be involved and their skills may be required to automate some tests. However, the decision on how much to automate should not be made by developers.

Question 13
- (Exam Topic 22)
Which of the following is a consideration when deploying test execution tools? [K1]
My answer: -
Reference answer: B
Reference analysis:

None

Question 14
- (Exam Topic 22)
What factors should be considered to determine whether enough testing has been performed? (i)The exit criteria.
(ii) The budget.
(iii) How big the test team is.
(iv)The product's risk profile.
(v)How good the testing tools are.
(vi) Sufficient details of the system status to allow decisions
My answer: -
Reference answer: A
Reference analysis:

None

Question 15
- (Exam Topic 23)
Which of the following would NOT be a common metric used for monitoring test preparation and execution?
My answer: -
Reference answer: D
Reference analysis:

None

Question 16
- (Exam Topic 21)
Which of the following statements are correct for walkthroughs?
(i) Often led by the author.
(ii) Documented and defined results.
(iii) All participants have defined roles.
(iv) Used to aid learning.
(v) Main purpose is to find defects.
My answer: -
Reference answer: C
Reference analysis:

None

Question 17
- (Exam Topic 21)
Incorrect form of Logic coverage is:
My answer: -
Reference answer: B
Reference analysis:

None

Question 18
- (Exam Topic 22)
Which of the following statements about software development models is most accurate? [K1]
My answer: -
Reference answer: C
Reference analysis:

None

Question 19
- (Exam Topic 22)
Which of the following test design techniques is not a black box technique?
My answer: -
Reference answer: D
Reference analysis:

None

Question 20
- (Exam Topic 22)
Which of the following test organizations has the highest level of independence?
My answer: -
Reference answer: C
Reference analysis:

None

Question 21
- (Exam Topic 21)
What do you mean by “Having to say NO”..?
My answer: -
Reference answer: B
Reference analysis:

None

Question 22
- (Exam Topic 21)
Which statement correctly describes the public and profession aspects of the code of ethics?
My answer: -
Reference answer: D
Reference analysis:

All other answers contain an activity identified as analysis and design that is part of implementation and test execution.

Question 23
- (Exam Topic 22)
Test script TransVal 3.1 tests transaction validation via screen TRN 003B. According to the specification (PID ver 1.3 10b iv) the validation screen should not accept future dated transactions. Test script TransVal 3.1 passes. Test script eod 1.4 tests end of day processing and is run after the execution of TransVal 3.1 using data entered during that test
Which of the following is the BEST detail on an incident report? [K3]
My answer: -
Reference answer: D
Reference analysis:

None

Question 24
- (Exam Topic 21)
Hand over of Testware is a part of which Phase:
My answer: -
Reference answer: C
Reference analysis:

None

Question 25
- (Exam Topic 21)
Which of the following are most characteristic of structure-based testing?
(i) Information about how the software is constructed is used to derive test cases.
(ii) Statement coverage and/or decision coverage can be measured for existing test cases.
(iii) The knowledge and experience of people are used to derive test cases.
(iv) Test cases are derived from a model or specification of the system.
My answer: -
Reference answer: A
Reference analysis:

None

Question 26
- (Exam Topic 23)
The following Test Cases have been created for a simple web-based airline booking system. Test Case 1: Search for an item Available Flights
Test Case 2: View selected item in My Flights
Test Case 3: Login to the system: Login is accepted
Test Case 4: Select an available flight: item added to My Flights Test Case 5: Print confirmation receipt, then exit
Test Case 6: In My Flights, confirm details and book flight
Which of the following is the correct logical order for the test cases?
My answer: -
Reference answer: B
Reference analysis:

None

Question 27
- (Exam Topic 16)
Which of the following product risks would be most effectively addressed just by static testing? 3 credits
My answer: -
Reference answer: C
Reference analysis:

None

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Total 120 questions Full Exam Access