The Updated Guide To CISA Free Practice Questions

Testking CISA Questions are updated and all CISA answers are verified by experts. Once you have completely prepared with our CISA exam prep kits you will be ready for the real CISA exam without a problem. We have Renovate Isaca CISA dumps study guide. PASSED CISA First attempt! Here What I Did.

Free demo questions for Isaca CISA Exam Dumps Below:

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Total 1177 questions Full Exam Access
Question 1
- (Topic 2)
Which of the following is the PRIMARY advantage of using computer forensic software for investigations?
My answer: -
Reference answer: A
Reference analysis:


The primary objective of forensic software is to preserve electronic evidence to meet the rules of evidence. Choice B, time and cost savings, and choice C, efficiency and effectiveness, are legitimate concerns that differentiate good from poor forensic software packages. Choice D, the ability to search for intellectual property rights violations, is an example of a use of forensic software.

Question 2
- (Topic 6)
Disabling which of the following would make wireless local area networks more secure against unauthorized access?
My answer: -
Reference answer: D
Reference analysis:


Disabling SSID broadcasting adds security by making it more difficult for unauthorized users to find the name of the access point. Disabling MAC address filtering would reduce security. Using MAC filtering makes it more difficult to access a WLAN, because it would be necessary to catch traffic and forge the MAC address. Disabling WPA reduces security. Using WPA adds security by encrypting the traffic. Disabling LEAP reduces security. Using LEAP adds security by encrypting the wireless traffic.

Question 3
- (Topic 1)
An IS auditor should carefully review the functional requirements in a systems-development project to ensure that the project is designed to:
My answer: -
Reference answer: A
Reference analysis:

An IS auditor should carefully review the functional requirements in a systems-development project to ensure that the project is designed to meet business objectives.

Question 4
- (Topic 7)
During a review of a business continuity plan, an IS auditor noticed that the point at which a situation is declared to be a crisis has not been defined. The MAJOR risk associated with this is that:
My answer: -
Reference answer: B
Reference analysis:


Execution of the business continuity plan would be impacted if the organization does not know when to declare a crisis. Choices A, C and D are steps that must be performed to know whether to declare a crisis. Problem and severity assessment would provide information necessary in declaring a disaster. Once a potential crisis is recognized, the teams responsible for crisis management need to be notified. Delaying this step until a disaster has been declared would negate the effect of having response teams. Potential crisis recognition is the first step in responding to a disaster.

Question 5
- (Topic 8)
As part of the IEEE 802.11 standard ratified in September 1999, WEP uses the CRC- 32 checksum for:
My answer: -
Reference answer: A
Reference analysis:


As part of the IEEE 802.11 standard ratified in September 1999, WEP uses the stream cipher RC4 for confidentiality and the CRC-32 checksum for integrity.
Many WEP systems require a key in hexadecimal format. If one chooses keys that spell words in the limited 0-9, A-F hex character set, these keys can be easily guessed.

Question 6
- (Topic 6)
The PRIMARY objective of a logical access control review is to:
My answer: -
Reference answer: B
Reference analysis:


The scope of a logical access control review is primarily to determine whether or not access is granted per the organization's authorizations. Choices A and C relate to procedures of a logical access control review, rather than objectives. Choice D is relevant to a physical access control review.

Question 7
- (Topic 7)
Which of the following is a continuity plan test that uses actual resources to simulate a system crash to cost-effectively obtain evidence about the plan's effectiveness?
My answer: -
Reference answer: C
Reference analysis:


A preparedness test is a localized version of a full test, wherein resources are expended in the simulation of a system crash. This test is performed regularly on different aspects of the plan and can be a cost-effective way to gradually obtain evidence about the plan's effectiveness. It also provides a means to improve the plan in increments. A paper test is a walkthrough of the plan, involving major players, who attempt to determine what might happen in a particular type of service disruption in the plan's execution. A paper test usually precedes the preparedness test. A post-test is actually a test phase and is comprised of a group of activities, such as returning all resources to their proper place, disconnecting equipment, returning personnel and deleting all company data from third-party systems. A walkthrough is a test involving a simulated disaster situation that tests the preparedness and understanding of management and staff, rather than the actual resources.

Question 8
- (Topic 6)
In auditing a web server, an IS auditor should be concerned about the risk of individuals gaining unauthorized access to confidential information through:
My answer: -
Reference answer: A
Reference analysis:


Common gateway interface (CGI) scripts are executable machine independent software programs on the server that can be called and executed by a web server page. CGI performs specific tasks such as processing inputs received from clients. The use of CGI scripts needs to be evaluated, because as they run in the server, a bug in them may allow a user to gain unauthorized access to the server and from there gain access to the organization's network. Applets are programs downloaded from a web server and executed on web browsers on client machines to run any web-based applications. Enterprise java beans (EJBs) and web services have to be deployed by the web server administrator and are controlled by the application server. Their execution requiresknowledge of the parameters and expected return values.

Question 9
- (Topic 4)
An organization is implementing an enterprise resource planning (ERP) application to meet its business objectives. Of the following, who is PRIMARILY responsible for overseeing the project in order to ensure that it is progressing in accordance with the project plan and that it will deliver the expected results?
My answer: -
Reference answer: C
Reference analysis:


A project steering committee that provides an overall direction for the enterprise resource planning (ERP) implementation project is responsible for reviewing the project's progress to ensure that it will deliver the expected results. A project sponsor is typically the senior manager in charge of the primary business unit that the application will support. The sponsor provides funding for the project and works closely with the project manager to define the critical success factors or metrics forthe project. The project sponsor is not responsible for reviewing the progress of the project. A system development project team (SDPT) completes the assigned tasks, works according to the instructions of the project manager and communicates with the user project team. The SDPT is not responsible for reviewing the progress of the project. A user project team (UPT) completes the assigned tasks, communicates effectively with the system development team and works according to the advice of the project manager. A UPT is not responsible for reviewing the progress of the project.

Question 10
- (Topic 3)
When performing a review of the structure of an electronic funds transfer (EFT) system, an IS auditor observes that the technological infrastructure is based on a centralized processing scheme that has been outsourced to a provider in another country. Based on this information, which of the following conclusions should be the main concern of the IS auditor?
My answer: -
Reference answer: A
Reference analysis:


In the funds transfer process, when the processing scheme is centralized in a different country, there could be legal issues of jurisdiction that might affect the right to perform a review in the other country. The other choices, though possible, are not as relevant as the issue of legal jurisdiction.

Question 11
CORRECT TEXT - (Topic 2)
The vice president of human resources has requested an audit to identify payroll overpayments for the previous year. Which would be the BEST audit technique to use in this situation?
My answer: -
Reference answer: B
Reference analysis:

None

Question 12
- (Topic 5)
An organization has recently installed a security patch, which crashed the production server. To minimize the probability of this occurring again, an IS auditor should:
My answer: -
Reference answer: B
Reference analysis:


An IS auditor must review the change management process, including patch management procedures, and verify that the process has adequate controls and make suggestions accordingly. The other choices are part of a good change management process but arenot an IS auditor's responsibility.

Question 13
- (Topic 7)
A structured walk-through test of a disaster recovery plan involves:
My answer: -
Reference answer: B
Reference analysis:


A structured walk-through test of a disaster recovery plan involves representatives from each of the functional areas coming together to review the plan to determine if the plan pertaining to their area is accurate and complete and can be implemented when required. Choice B is a simulation test to prepare and train the personnel who will be required to respond to disasters and disruptions. Choice C is a form of parallel testing to ensure that critical systems will perform satisfactorily in the alternate site. Choice D is a checklist test.

Question 14
- (Topic 6)
An IS auditor reviewing digital rights management (DRM) applications should expect to find an extensive use for which of the following technologies?
My answer: -
Reference answer: D
Reference analysis:


Steganography is a technique for concealing the existence of messages or information. An increasingly important steganographical technique is digital watermarking, which hides data within data, e.g., by encoding rights information in a picture or music file without altering the picture or music's perceivable aesthetic qualities. Digitalized signatures are not related to digital rights management. Hashing creates a message hash or digest, which is used to ensure the integrity of the message; it is usually considered a part of cryptography. Parsing is the process of splitting up a continuous stream of characters for analytical purposes, and is widely applied in the design of programming languages or in data entry editing.

Question 15
- (Topic 1)
What kind of testing should programmers perform following any changes to an application or system?
My answer: -
Reference answer: A
Reference analysis:

Programmers should perform unit, module, and full regression testing
following any changes to an application or system.

Question 16
- (Topic 2)
An IS auditor issues an audit report pointing out the lack of firewall protection features at the perimeter network gateway and recommends a vendor product to address this vulnerability. The IS auditor has failed to exercise:
My answer: -
Reference answer: A
Reference analysis:


When an IS auditor recommends a specific vendor, they compromise professional independence. Organizational independence has no relevance to the content of an audit report and should be considered at the time of accepting the engagement. Technical and professional competence is not relevant to the requirement of independence.

Question 17
- (Topic 6)
An IS auditor examining a biometric user authentication system establishes the existence
of a control weakness that would allow an unauthorized individual to update the centralized database on the server that is used to store biometric templates. Ofthe following, which is the BEST control against this risk?
My answer: -
Reference answer: A
Reference analysis:


Kerberos is a network authentication protocol for client-server applications that can be used to restrict access to the database to authorized users. Choices B and C are incorrect because vitality detection and multimodal biometrics are controls against spoofing and mimicry attacks. Before-image/after-image logging of database transactions is a detective control, as opposed to Kerberos, which is a preventative control.

Question 18
- (Topic 1)
What is the PRIMARY purpose of audit trails?
My answer: -
Reference answer: C
Reference analysis:

The primary purpose of audit trails is to establish accountability and responsibility for processed transactions.

Question 19
- (Topic 8)
The technique of rummaging through commercial trash to collect useful business information is known as:
My answer: -
Reference answer: A
Reference analysis:


Dumpster diving in the form of information diving describes the practice of rummaging through commercial trash to find useful information such as files, letters, memos, passwords ...etc.

Question 20
CORRECT TEXT - (Topic 7)
While observing a full simulation of the business continuity plan, an IS auditor notices that the notification systems within the organizational facilities could be severely impacted by infra structural damage. The BEST recommendation the IS auditor can provide to the organization is to ensure:
My answer: -
Reference answer: C
Reference analysis:

None

Question 21
- (Topic 6)
What is the BEST approach to mitigate the risk of a phishing attack?
My answer: -
Reference answer: D
Reference analysis:


Phishing attacks can be mounted in various ways; intrusion detection systems (IDSs) and strong authentication cannot mitigate most types of phishing attacks. Assessing web site security does not mitigate the risk. Phishing uses a server masqueradingas a legitimate server. The best way to mitigate the risk of phishing is to educate users to take caution with suspicious internet communications and not to trust them until verified. Users require adequate training to recognize suspicious web pagesand e-mail.

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Total 1177 questions Full Exam Access