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Question 1
- (Topic 5)
Which of the following is not a DES mode of operation?
My answer: -
Reference answer: C
Reference analysis:

Output feedback (OFB) is a DES mode of operation, not input feedback.
Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, John Wiley & Sons, 2001, Chapter 4: Cryptography (page 149).

Question 2
- (Topic 5)
Which of the following concerning the Rijndael block cipher algorithm is false?
My answer: -
Reference answer: C
Reference analysis:

The answer above is the correct answer because it is FALSE. Rijndael does not support multiples of 64 bits but multiples of 32 bits in the range of 128 bits to 256 bits. Key length could be 128, 160, 192, 224, and 256.
Both block length and key length can be extended very easily to multiples of 32 bits. For a total combination of 25 different block and key size that are possible.
The Rijndael Cipher
Rijndael is a block cipher, designed by Joan Daemen and Vincent Rijmen as a candidate algorithm for the Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) in the United States of America. The cipher has a variable block length and key length.
Rijndael can be implemented very efficiently on a wide range of processors and in hardware.
The design of Rijndael was strongly influenced by the design of the block cipher Square. The Advanced Encryption Standard (AES)
The Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) keys are defined to be either 128, 192, or 256
bits in accordance with the requirements of the AES.
The number of rounds, or iterations of the main algorithm, can vary from 10 to 14 within the Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) and is dependent on the block size and key length. 128 bits keys uses 10 rounds or encryptions, 192 bits keys uses 12 rounds of encryption, and 256 bits keys uses 14 rounds of encryption.
The low number of rounds has been one of the main criticisms of Rijndael, but if this ever becomes a problem the number of rounds can easily be increased at little extra cost performance wise by increasing the block size and key length.
Range of key and block lengths in Rijndael and AES
Rijndael and AES differ only in the range of supported values for the block length and cipher key length.
For Rijndael, the block length and the key length can be independently specified to any multiple of 32 bits, with a minimum of 128 bits, and a maximum of 256 bits. The support for block and key lengths 160 and 224 bits was introduced in Joan Daemen and Vincent Rijmen, AES submission document on Rijndael, Version 2, September 1999 available at
http://csrc.nist.gov/archive/aes/rijndael/Rijndael-ammended.pdf
AES fixes the block length to 128 bits, and supports key lengths of 128, 192 or 256 bits only.
Reference used for this question:
The Rijndael Page and
http://csrc.nist.gov/archive/aes/rijndael/Rijndael-ammended.pdf and
FIPS PUB 197, Advanced Encryption Standard (AES), National Institute of Standards and Technology, U.S. Department of Commerce, November 2001.

Question 3
- (Topic 1)
The number of violations that will be accepted or forgiven before a violation record is produced is called which of the following?
My answer: -
Reference answer: A
Reference analysis:

The correct answer is "clipping level". This is the point at which a system decides to take some sort of action when an action repeats a preset number of times. That action may be to log the activity, lock a user account, temporarily close a port, etc.
Example: The most classic example of a clipping level is failed login attempts. If you have a system configured to lock a user's account after three failed login attemts, that is the "clipping level".
The other answers are not correct because:
Acceptance level, forgiveness level, and logging level are nonsensical terms that do not exist (to my knowledge) within network security.
Reference:
Official ISC2 Guide - The term "clipping level" is not in the glossary or index of that book. I cannot find it in the text either. However, I'm quite certain that it would be considered part of the CBK, despite its exclusion from the Official Guide.
All in One Third Edition page: 136 - 137

Question 4
- (Topic 1)
What is called the percentage at which the False Rejection Rate equals the False Acceptance Rate?
My answer: -
Reference answer: C
Reference analysis:

The percentage at which the False Rejection Rate equals the False Acceptance Rate is called the Crossover Error Rate (CER). Another name for the CER is the Equal Error Rate (EER), any of the two terms could be used.
Equal error rate or crossover error rate (EER or CER)
It is the rate at which both accept and reject errors are equal. The EER is a quick way to compare the accuracy of devices with different ROC curves. In general, the device with the lowest EER is most accurate.
The other choices were all wrong answers:
The following are used as performance metrics for biometric systems:
false accept rate or false match rate (FAR or FMR): the probability that the system incorrectly matches the input pattern to a non-matching template in the database. It measures the percent of invalid inputs which are incorrectly accepted. This is when an impostor would be accepted by the system.
False reject rate or false non-match rate (FRR or FNMR): the probability that the system fails to detect a match between the input pattern and a matching template in the database. It measures the percent of valid inputs which are incorrectly rejected. This is when a valid company employee would be rejected by the system.
Failure to enroll rate (FTE or FER): the rate at which attempts to create a template from an input is unsuccessful. This is most commonly caused by low quality inputs.
Reference(s) used for this question:
KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, 2001, John Wiley & Sons, Page 38.
and https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Biometrics

Question 5
- (Topic 1)
In the context of access control, locks, gates, guards are examples of which of the following?
My answer: -
Reference answer: C
Reference analysis:

Administrative, technical and physical controls are categories of access control mechanisms.
Logical and Technical controls are synonymous. So both of them could be eliminated as possible choices.
Physical Controls: These are controls to protect the organization??s people and physical environment, such as locks, gates, and guards. Physical controls may be called ??operational controls?? in some contexts.
Physical security covers a broad spectrum of controls to protect the physical assets (primarily the people) in an organization. Physical Controls are sometimes referred to as ??operational?? controls in some risk management frameworks. These controls range from doors, locks, and windows to environment controls, construction standards, and guards. Typically, physical security is based on the notion of establishing security zones or concentric areas within a facility that require increased security as you get closer to the
valuable assets inside the facility. Security zones are the physical representation of the defense-in-depth principle discussed earlier in this chapter. Typically, security zones are associated with rooms, offices, floors, or smaller elements, such as a cabinet or storage locker. The design of the physical security controls within the facility must take into account the protection of the asset as well as the individuals working in that area.
Reference(s) used for this question:
Hernandez CISSP, Steven (2012-12-21). Official (ISC)2 Guide to the CISSP CBK, Third Edition ((ISC)2 Press) (Kindle Locations 1301-1303). Auerbach Publications. Kindle Edition.
and
Hernandez CISSP, Steven (2012-12-21). Official (ISC)2 Guide to the CISSP CBK, Third Edition ((ISC)2 Press) (Kindle Locations 1312-1318). Auerbach Publications. Kindle Edition.

Question 6
- (Topic 4)
Under the Business Exemption Rule to the hearsay evidence, which of the following exceptions would have no bearing on the inadmissibility of audit logs and audit trails in a court of law?
My answer: -
Reference answer: B
Reference analysis:

Hearsay evidence is not normally admissible in court unless it has firsthand evidence that can be used to prove the evidence's accuracy, trustworthiness, and reliability like a business person who generated the computer logs and collected them.
It is important that this person generates and collects logs as a normal part of his business and not just this one time for court. It has to be a documented process that is carried out daily.
The value of evidence depends upon the genuineness and competence of the source; therefore, since record collection is not an activity likely to be performed by senior or executive management, records collected by senior or executive management are not likely to be admissible in court.
Hearsay evidence is usually not admissible in court unless it meets the Business Records Exemption rule to the Hearsay evidence.
• In certain instances computer records fall outside of the hearsay rule (e.g., business records exemption)
• Information relates to regular business activities
• Automatically computer generated data
• No human intervention
• Prove system was operating correctly
• Prove no one changed the data
If you have a documented business process and you make use of intrusion detection tools, log analysis tools, and you produce daily reports of activities, then the computer generated data might be admissible in court and would not be considered Hearsay Evidence.
Reference(s) used for this question:
HARRIS, Shon, All-In-One CISSP Certification Exam Guide, McGraw-Hill/Osborne, 2002, chapter 10: Law, Investigation, and Ethics (page 676).

Question 7
- (Topic 2)
What prevents a process from accessing another process' data?
My answer: -
Reference answer: B
Reference analysis:

Process isolation is where each process has its own distinct address space for its application code and data. In this way, it is possible to prevent each process from accessing another process' data. This prevents data leakage, or modification to the data while it is in memory. Memory segmentation is a virtual memory management mechanism. The reference monitor is an abstract machine that mediates all accesses to objects by subjects. Data hiding, also known as information hiding, is a mechanism that makes information available at one processing level is not available at another level.
Source: HARE, Chris, Security Architecture and Models, Area 6 CISSP Open Study Guide, January 2002.

Question 8
- (Topic 6)
In the context of network enumeration by an outside attacker and possible Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attacks, which of the following firewall rules is not appropriate to protect an organization's internal network?
My answer: -
Reference answer: A
Reference analysis:

Echo replies outbound should be dropped, not allowed. There is no reason for any internet users to send ICMP ECHO Request to your interal hosts from the internet. If they wish to find out if a service is available, they can use a browser to connect to your web server or simply send an email if they wish to test your mail service.
Echo replies outbound could be used as part of the SMURF amplification attack where someone will send ICMP echo requests to gateways broadcast addresses in order to amplify the request by X number of users sitting behind the gateway.
By allowing inbound echo requests and outbound echo replies, it makes it easier for attackers to learn about the internal network as well by performing a simply ping sweep. ICMP can also be used to find out which host has been up and running the longest which would indicates which patches are missing on the host if a critical patch required a reboot.
ICMP can also be use for DDoS attacks, so you should strictly limit what type of ICMP traffic would be allowed to flow through your firewall.
On top of all this, tools such as LOKI could be use as a client-server application to transfer files back and forward between the internat and some of your internal hosts. LOKI is a client/server program published in the online publication Phrack . This program is a working proof-of-concept to demonstrate that data can be transmitted somewhat secretly across a network by hiding it in traffic that normally does not contain payloads. The example code can tunnel the equivalent of a Unix RCMD/RSH session in either ICMP echo request (ping) packets or UDP traffic to the DNS port. This is used as a back door into a Unix system after root access has been compromised. Presence of LOKI on a system is evidence that the system has been compromised in the past.
The outbound echo request and inbound echo reply allow internal users to verify connectivity with external hosts.
The following answers are incorrect:
Allow echo request outbound The outbound echo request and inbound echo reply allow internal users to verify connectivity with external hosts.
Drop echo request inbound There is no need for anyone on the internet to attempt pinging your internal hosts.
Allow echo reply inbound The outbound echo request and inbound echo reply allow internal users to verify connectivity with external hosts.
Reference(s) used for this question: http://www.phrack.org/issues.html?issue=49&id=6
STREBE, Matthew and PERKINS, Charles, Firewalls 24seven, Sybex 2000, Chapter 10:
The Perfect Firewall.

Question 9
- (Topic 6)
Which of the following is an IP address that is private (i.e. reserved for internal networks, and not a valid address to use on the Internet)?
My answer: -
Reference answer: A
Reference analysis:

This is a valid Class A reserved address. For Class A, the reserved addresses are 10.0.0.0 - 10.255.255.255.
The following answers are incorrect:
11.0.42.5 Is incorrect because it is not a Class A reserved address.
12.0.42.5 Is incorrect because it is not a Class A reserved address.
13.0.42.5 Is incorrect because it is not a Class A reserved address.
The private IP address ranges are defined within RFC 1918: RFC 1918 private ip address range
SSCP dumps exhibit
C:\Users\MCS\Desktop\1.jpg References:
3Com http://www.3com.com/other/pdfs/infra/corpinfo/en_US/501302.pdf
AIOv3 Telecommunications and Networking Security (page 438)

Question 10
- (Topic 6)
Which of the following is the biggest concern with firewall security?
My answer: -
Reference answer: B
Reference analysis:

Firewalls tend to give a false sense of security. They can be very hard to bypass but they need to be properly configured. The complexity of configuration rules can introduce a vulnerability when the person responsible for its configuration does not fully understand all possible options and switches. Denial of service attacks mainly concerns availability.
Source: HARRIS, Shon, All-In-One CISSP Certification Exam Guide, McGraw-
Hill/Osborne, 2002, Chapter 3: Telecommunications and Network Security (page 412).

Question 11
- (Topic 6)
In telephony different types of connections are being used. The connection from the phone company's branch office to local customers is referred to as which of the following choices?
My answer: -
Reference answer: B
Reference analysis:

Transmission on fiber optic wire requires repeating at distance intervals. The glass fiber requires more protection within an outer cable than copper. For these reasons and because the installation of any new wiring is labor-intensive, few communities yet have fiber optic wires or cables from the phone company's branch office to local customers (local loop).
In telephony, a local loop is the wired connection from a telephone company's central office
in a locality to its customers' telephones at homes and businesses. This connection is usually on a pair of copper wires called twisted pair. The system was originally designed for voice transmission only using analog transmission technology on a single voice channel. Today, your computer's modem makes the conversion between analog signals and digital signals. With Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) or Digital Subscriber Line (DSL), the local loop can carry digital signals directly and at a much higher bandwidth than they do for voice only.
Local Loop diagram
SSCP dumps exhibit
C:\Users\MCS\Desktop\1.jpg
Image from: http://www.thenetworkencyclopedia.com/entry/local-loop/
The following are incorrect answers:
New loop This is only a detractor and does not exist
Loopback In telephone systems, a loopback is a test signal sent to a network destination that is returned as received to the originator. The returned signal may help diagnose a
problem.
Ingenious loop This is only a detractor and does not exist
Reference(s) used for this question: http://searchnetworking.techtarget.com/definition/local-loop
and
STEINER, Kurt, Telecommunications and Network Security, Version 1, May 2002, CISSP Open Study Group (Domain Leader: skottikus), Page 14.

Question 12
- (Topic 1)
Which of the following statements pertaining to RADIUS is incorrect:
My answer: -
Reference answer: D
Reference analysis:

This is the correct answer because it is FALSE.
Diameter is an AAA protocol, AAA stands for authentication, authorization and accounting protocol for computer networks, and it is a successor to RADIUS.
The name is a pun on the RADIUS protocol, which is the predecessor (a diameter is twice the radius).
The main differences are as follows:
Reliable transport protocols (TCP or SCTP, not UDP)
The IETF is in the process of standardizing TCP Transport for RADIUS Network or transport layer security (IPsec or TLS)
The IETF is in the process of standardizing Transport Layer Security for RADIUS Transition support for RADIUS, although Diameter is not fully compatible with RADIUS Larger address space for attribute-value pairs (AVPs) and identifiers (32 bits instead of 8 bits)
Client?Cserver protocol, with exception of supporting some server-initiated messages as well Both stateful and stateless models can be used
Dynamic discovery of peers (using DNS SRV and NAPTR) Capability negotiation
Supports application layer acknowledgements, defines failover methods and state machines (RFC 3539)
Error notification Better roaming support
More easily extended; new commands and attributes can be defined Aligned on 32-bit boundaries
Basic support for user-sessions and accounting
A Diameter Application is not a software application, but a protocol based on the Diameter base protocol (defined in RFC 3588). Each application is defined by an application identifier and can add new command codes and/or new mandatory AVPs. Adding a new optional AVP does not require a new application.
Examples of Diameter applications:
Diameter Mobile IPv4 Application (MobileIP, RFC 4004)
Diameter Network Access Server Application (NASREQ, RFC 4005) Diameter Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP) Application (RFC 4072) Diameter Credit-Control Application (DCCA, RFC 4006)
Diameter Session Initiation Protocol Application (RFC 4740) Various applications in the 3GPP IP Multimedia Subsystem
All of the other choices presented are true. So Diameter is backwork compatible with Radius (to some extent) but the opposite is false.
Reference(s) used for this question:
TIPTON, Harold F. & KRAUSE, MICKI, Information Security Management Handbook, 4th Edition, Volume 2, 2001, CRC Press, NY, Page 38.
and https://secure.wikimedia.org/wikipedia/en/wiki/Diameter_%28protocol%29

Question 13
- (Topic 2)
What is the goal of the Maintenance phase in a common development process of a security policy?
My answer: -
Reference answer: A
Reference analysis:

"publication within the organization" is the goal of the Publication Phase "write a proposal to management that states the objectives of the policy" is part of Initial and Evaluation Phase "Present the document to an approving body" is part of Approval Phase.
Reference: TIPTON, Harold F. & KRAUSE, MICKI, Information Security Management Handbook, 4th Edition, Volume 3, 2002, Auerbach Publications.
Also: KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, John Wiley & Sons, 2001, Chapter 8: Business Continuity Planning and Disaster Recovery Planning (page 286).

Question 14
- (Topic 5)
What is the name of the third party authority that vouches for the binding between the data items in a digital certificate?
My answer: -
Reference answer: B
Reference analysis:

A certification authority (CA) is a third party entity that issues digital certificates (especially X.509 certificates) and vouches for the binding between the data items in a certificate. An issuing authority could be considered a correct answer, but not the best answer, since it is too generic.
Source: SHIREY, Robert W., RFC2828: Internet Security Glossary, may 2000.

Question 15
- (Topic 2)
Which of the following statements pertaining to software testing approaches is correct?
My answer: -
Reference answer: C
Reference analysis:

A bottom-up approach to testing begins testing of atomic units, such as programs or modules, and works upwards until a complete system testing has taken place. It allows errors in critical modules to be found early. A top-down approach allows for early detection of interface errors and raises confidence in the system, as programmers and users actually see a working system. White box testing is predicated on a close examination of procedural detail. Black box testing examines some aspect of the system with little regard for the internal logical structure of the software.
Source: Information Systems Audit and Control Association, Certified Information Systems Auditor 2002 review manual, Chapter 6: Business Application System Development, Acquisition, Implementation and Maintenance (page 300).
Top Down Testing: An approach to integration testing where the component at the top of the component hierarchy is tested first, with lower level components being simulated by stubs. Tested components are then used to test lower level components. The process is repeated until the lowest level components have been tested.
Bottom Up Testing: An approach to integration testing where the lowest level components are tested first, then used to facilitate the testing of higher level components. The process is repeated until the component at the top of the hierarchy is tested.
Black Box Testing: Testing based on an analysis of the specification of a piece of software without reference to its internal workings. The goal is to test how well the component conforms to the published requirements for the component.

Question 16
- (Topic 6)
How do you distinguish between a bridge and a router?
My answer: -
Reference answer: D
Reference analysis:

A bridge operates at the Data Link Layer and a router operates at the Network Layer.
The following answers are incorrect:
A bridge simply connects multiple networks, a router examines each packet to determine which network to forward it to. Is incorrect because both forward packets this is not distinctive enough.
"Bridge" and "router" are synonyms for equipment used to join two networks. Is incorrect because the two are unique and operate at different layers of the OSI model.
The bridge is a specific type of router used to connect a LAN to the global Internet. Is incorrect because a bridge does not connect a LAN to the global internet, but connects networks together creating a LAN.

Question 17
- (Topic 4)
In which of the following phases of system development life cycle (SDLC) is contingency planning most important?
My answer: -
Reference answer: A
Reference analysis:

Contingency planning requirements should be considered at every phase of SDLC, but most importantly when a new IT system is being conceived. In the initiation phase, system requirements are identified and matched to their related operational processes, allowing determination of the system's appropriate recovery priority.
Source: SWANSON, Marianne, & al., National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST), NIST Special Publication 800-34, Contingency Planning Guide for Information Technology Systems, December 2001 (page 12).
and
The Official ISC2 Guide to the CBK, Second Edition, Application Security, page 180-185

Question 18
- (Topic 1)
What can be defined as a list of subjects along with their access rights that are authorized to access a specific object?
My answer: -
Reference answer: B
Reference analysis:

"It [ACL] specifies a list of users [subjects] who are allowed access to each object" CBK, p. 188
A capability table is incorrect. "Capability tables are used to track, manage and apply controls based on the object and rights, or capabilities of a subject. For example, a table identifies the object, specifies access rights allowed for a subject, and permits access based on the user's posession of a capability (or ticket) for the object." CBK, pp. 191-192. The distinction that makes this an incorrect choice is that access is based on posession of a capability by the subject.
To put it another way, as noted in AIO3 on p. 169, "A capabiltiy table is different from an ACL because the subject is bound to the capability table, whereas the object is bound to the ACL."
An access control matrix is incorrect. The access control matrix is a way of describing the rules for an access control strategy. The matrix lists the users, groups and roles down the left side and the resources and functions across the top. The cells of the matrix can either indicate that access is allowed or indicate the type of access. CBK pp 317 - 318.
AIO3, p. 169 describes it as a table if subjects and objects specifying the access rights a certain subject possesses pertaining to specific objects.
In either case, the matrix is a way of analyzing the access control needed by a population of subjects to a population of objects. This access control can be applied using rules, ACL's, capability tables, etc.
A role-based matrix is incorrect. Again, a matrix of roles vs objects could be used as a tool for thinking about the access control to be applied to a set of objects. The results of the analysis could then be implemented using RBAC.
References:
CBK, Domain 2: Access Control. AIO3, Chapter 4: Access Control

Question 19
- (Topic 5)
What kind of certificate is used to validate a user identity?
My answer: -
Reference answer: A
Reference analysis:

In cryptography, a public key certificate (or identity certificate) is an electronic document which incorporates a digital signature to bind together a public key with an identity ?? information such as the name of a person or an organization, their address, and so forth. The certificate can be used to verify that a public key belongs to an individual.
In a typical public key infrastructure (PKI) scheme, the signature will be of a certificate authority (CA). In a web of trust scheme, the signature is of either the user (a self-signed certificate) or other users ("endorsements"). In either case, the signatures on a certificate are attestations by the certificate signer that the identity information and the public key belong together.
In computer security, an authorization certificate (also known as an attribute certificate) is a digital document that describes a written permission from the issuer to use a service or a resource that the issuer controls or has access to use. The permission can be delegated.
Some people constantly confuse PKCs and ACs. An analogy may make the distinction clear. A PKC can be considered to be like a passport: it identifies the holder, tends to last for a long time, and should not be trivial to obtain. An AC is more like an entry visa: it is typically issued by a different authority and does not last for as long a time. As acquiring an entry visa typically requires presenting a passport, getting a visa can be a simpler process.
A real life example of this can be found in the mobile software deployments by large service providers and are typically applied to platforms such as Microsoft Smartphone (and related), Symbian OS, J2ME, and others.
In each of these systems a mobile communications service provider may customize the mobile terminal client distribution (ie. the mobile phone operating system or application environment) to include one or more root certificates each associated with a set of capabilities or permissions such as "update firmware", "access address book", "use radio interface", and the most basic one, "install and execute". When a developer wishes to enable distribution and execution in one of these controlled environments they must acquire a certificate from an appropriate CA, typically a large commercial CA, and in the process they usually have their identity verified using out-of-band mechanisms such as a combination of phone call, validation of their legal entity through government and commercial databases, etc., similar to the high assurance SSL certificate vetting process, though often there are additional specific requirements imposed on would-be developers/publishers.
Once the identity has been validated they are issued an identity certificate they can use to sign their software; generally the software signed by the developer or publisher's identity certificate is not distributed but rather it is submitted to processor to possibly test or profile the content before generating an authorization certificate which is unique to the particular software release. That certificate is then used with an ephemeral asymmetric key-pair to sign the software as the last step of preparation for distribution. There are many advantages to separating the identity and authorization certificates especially relating to risk mitigation of new content being accepted into the system and key management as well as recovery from errant software which can be used as attack vectors.
References:
HARRIS, Shon, All-In-One CISSP Certification Exam Guide, 2001, McGraw-Hill/Osborne, page 540.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Attribute_certificate http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Public_key_certificate

Question 20
- (Topic 4)
When a possible intrusion into your organization's information system has been detected, which of the following actions should be performed first?
My answer: -
Reference answer: C
Reference analysis:

Once an intrusion into your organization's information system has been detected, the first action that needs to be performed is determining to what extent systems and data are compromised (if they really are), and then take action.
This is the good old saying: "Do not cry wolf until you know there is a wolf for sure" Sometimes it smells like a wolf, it looks like a wolf, but it may not be a wolf. Technical problems or bad hardware might cause problems that looks like an intrusion even thou it might not be. You must make sure that a crime has in fact been committed before implementing your reaction plan.
Information, as collected and interpreted through analysis, is key to your decisions and actions while executing response procedures. This first analysis will provide information such as what attacks were used, what systems and data were accessed by the intruder, what the intruder did after obtaining access and what the intruder is currently doing (if the intrusion has not been contained).
The next step is to communicate with relevant parties who need to be made aware of the intrusion in a timely manner so they can fulfil their responsibilities.
Step three is concerned with collecting and protecting all information about the compromised systems and causes of the intrusion. It must be carefully collected, labelled, catalogued, and securely stored.
Containing the intrusion, where tactical actions are performed to stop the intruder's access,
limit the extent of the intrusion, and prevent the intruder from causing further damage, comes next.
Since it is more a long-term goal, eliminating all means of intruder access can only be achieved last, by implementing an ongoing security improvement process.
Reference used for this question:
ALLEN, Julia H., The CERT Guide to System and Network Security Practices, Addison- Wesley, 2001, Chapter 7: Responding to Intrusions (pages 271-289).

Question 21
- (Topic 1)
Which of the following is NOT an advantage that TACACS+ has over TACACS?
My answer: -
Reference answer: A
Reference analysis:

Although TACACS+ provides better audit trails, event logging is a service that is provided with TACACS.
Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, John Wiley & Sons, 2001, Chapter 3: Telecommunications and Network Security (page 121).

Question 22
- (Topic 5)
Compared to RSA, which of the following is true of Elliptic Curve Cryptography(ECC)?
My answer: -
Reference answer: D
Reference analysis:

The following answers are incorrect: It has been mathematically proved to be less secure. ECC has not been proved to be more or less secure than RSA. Since ECC is newer than RSA, it is considered riskier by some, but that is just a general assessment, not based on mathematical arguments.
It has been mathematically proved to be more secure. ECC has not been proved to be more or less secure than RSA. Since ECC is newer than RSA, it is considered riskier by some, but that is just a general assessment, not based on mathematical arguments.
It is believed to require longer key for equivalent security. On the contrary, it is believed to require shorter keys for equivalent security of RSA.
Shon Harris, AIO v5 pg719 states:
"In most cases, the longer the key, the more protection that is provided, but ECC can provide the same level of protection with a key size that is shorter that what RSA requires"
The following reference(s) were/was used to create this question: ISC2 OIG, 2007 p. 258
Shon Harris, AIO v5 pg719

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